SY0-701 Certification Exam Dumps Questions in here [May-2025]
Updated SY0-701 Exam Practice Test Questions
NEW QUESTION # 185
Which of the following is best used to detect fraud by assigning employees to different roles?
- A. Least privilege
- B. Separation of duties
- C. Mandatory vacation
- D. Job rotation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Job rotation is a strategy used in organizations to detect and prevent fraud by periodically assigning employees to different roles within the organization. This approach helps ensure that no single employee has exclusive control over a specific process or set of tasks for an extended period, thereby reducing the opportunity for fraudulent activities to go unnoticed. By rotating roles, organizations can uncover irregularities and discrepancies that might have been concealed by an employee who had prolonged access to sensitive functions. Job rotation also promotes cross-training, which can enhance the organization's overall resilience and flexibility.
References =
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Risk Management and Compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 186
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to monitor the company's servers for SQLi attacks and allow for comprehensive investigations if an attack occurs. The company uses SSL decryption to allow traffic monitoring. Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal?
- A. Enabling full packet capture for traffic entering and exiting the servers
- B. Logging endpoint and OS-specific security logs
- C. Logging all NetFlow traffic into a SIEM
- D. Deploying network traffic sensors on the same subnet as the servers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following would be used to detect an employee who is emailing a customer list to a personal account before leaving the company?
- A. IDS
- B. DLP
- C. EDR
- D. FIM
Answer: B
Explanation:
To detect an employee who is emailing a customer list to a personal account before leaving the company, a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system would be used. DLP systems are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive data.
DLP (Data Loss Prevention): Monitors and controls data transfers to ensure sensitive information is not sent to unauthorized recipients.
FIM (File Integrity Monitoring): Monitors changes to files to detect unauthorized modifications.
IDS (Intrusion Detection System): Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity but does not specifically prevent data leakage.
EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response): Monitors and responds to threats on endpoints but is not specifically focused on data leakage.
NEW QUESTION # 188
An employee receives a text message from an unknown number claiming to be the company's Chief Executive Officer and asking the employee to purchase several gift cards. Which of the following types of attacks does this describe?
- A. Smishing
- B. Phishing
- C. Vishing
- D. Pretexting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses text messages or common messaging apps to trick victims into clicking on malicious links or providing personal information. The scenario in the question describes a smishing attack that uses pretexting, which is a form of social engineering that involves impersonating someone else to gain trust or access. The unknown number claims to be the company's CEO and asks the employee to purchase gift cards, which is a common scam tactic. Vishing is a similar type of attack that uses phone calls or voicemails, while phishing is a broader term that covers any email-based attack. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 771; Smishing vs. Phishing: Understanding the Differences2
NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?
- A. Access logs
- B. Adaptive identity
- C. Authentication
- D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing it. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the message or document. Reference = Non-repudiation - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.2, CompTIA Security+ SY0-301: 6.1 - Non-repudiation, CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 2.
NEW QUESTION # 190
A financial institution would like to store its customer data m the cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution Is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would best meet the requirement?
- A. Asymmetric
- B. Homomorphic
- C. Ephemeral
- D. Symmetric
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 191
Which of the following practices would be best to prevent an insider from introducing malicious code into a company's development process?
- A. Peer review and approval
- B. Code scanning for vulnerabilities
- C. Quality assurance testing
- D. Open-source component usage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code analysis, code review, and code signing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
- A. SNMP traps
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Compensating control
- D. Transfer of risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 - 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Hacktivist
- B. Unskilled attacker
- C. Organized crime
- D. Whistleblower
Answer: C
Explanation:
Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. Reference = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 194
Which of the following best describe a penetration test that resembles an actual external attach?
- A. Unknown environment
- B. Bug bounty
- C. Known environment
- D. Partially known environment
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 195
An administrator has identified and fingerprinted specific files that will generate an alert if an attempt is made to email these files outside of the organization. Which of the following best describes the tool the administrator is using?
- A. IPS
- B. SNMP traps
- C. DLP
- D. SCAP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 196
Which of the following security concepts is accomplished when granting access after an individual has logged into a computer network?
- A. Identification
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Authentication
- D. Authorization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Authorization refers to the process of granting or denying specific rights to a user after verifying their identity through authentication. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 1: General Security Concepts, Section: "Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)".
NEW QUESTION # 197
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's PII?
- A. Antivirus
- B. DLP
- C. SCAP
- D. Net Flow
Answer: B
Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer's PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.
NEW QUESTION # 198
A business received a small grant to migrate its infrastructure to an off-premises solution. Which of the following should be considered first?
- A. Ability of engineers
- B. Security of cloud providers
- C. Cost of implementation
- D. Security of architecture
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491
NEW QUESTION # 199
Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?
- A. SCADA
- B. RTOS
- C. Containers
- D. Embedded systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1
NEW QUESTION # 200
An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
- A. TLS
- B. WAF
- C. NGFW
- D. SD-WAN
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 201
A company wants to verify that the software the company is deploying came from the vendor the company purchased the software from. Which of the following is the best way for the company to confirm this information?
- A. Validate the code signature.
- B. Generate a hash of the files.
- C. Search the executable for ASCII strings.
- D. Execute the code in a sandbox.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Validating the code signature is the best way to verify software authenticity, as it ensures that the software has not been tampered with and that it comes from a verified source. Code signatures are digital signatures applied by the software vendor, and validating them confirms the software's integrity and origin.References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.
NEW QUESTION # 202
An attacker posing as the Chief Executive Officer calls an employee and instructs the employee to buy gift cards. Which of the following techniques is the attacker using?
- A. Whaling
- B. Smishing
- C. Impersonating
- D. Disinformation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, celebrities, or politicians. The attacker impersonates someone with authority or influence and tries to trick the victim into performing an action, such as transferring money, revealing sensitive information, or clicking on a malicious link. Whaling is also called CEO fraud or business email compromise2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 97.
NEW QUESTION # 203
Which of the following should be used to ensure a device is inaccessible to a network-connected resource?
- A. Web application firewall
- B. Network-based IDS
- C. Host isolation
- D. Disablement of unused services
Answer: C
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Host isolation ensures that a device is separated from the network, preventing it from accessing or being accessed by other network resources. This is typically achieved by quarantining the device.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Isolation and Containment".
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following vulnerabilities is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. Race condition
- C. VM escape
- D. SQL injection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A buffer overflow is a vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. A register is a small storage area in the CPU that holds temporary data or instructions. An attacker can exploit a buffer overflow to overwrite a register with a malicious address that points to a shellcode, which is a piece of code that gives the attacker control over the system. By doing so, the attacker can bypass the normal execution flow of the application and execute arbitrary commands.
References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Threats, Attacks, and Vulnerabilities, Section 2.3: Application Attacks, Page 76 1; Buffer Overflows - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.3 2
NEW QUESTION # 205
Which of the following automation use cases would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company?
- A. Reviewing change approvals
- B. Provisioning resources
- C. Escalating permission requests
- D. Disabling access
Answer: D
Explanation:
Disabling access is an automation use case that would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company. Disabling access is the process of revoking or suspending the access rights of a user account, such as login credentials, email, VPN, cloud services, etc. Disabling access can prevent unauthorized or malicious use of the account by former employees or attackers who may have compromised the account. Disabling access can also reduce the attack surface and the risk of data breaches or leaks. Disabling access can be automated by using scripts, tools, or workflows that can trigger the action based on predefined events, such as employee termination, resignation, or transfer.
Automation can ensure that the access is disabled in a timely, consistent, and efficient manner, without relying on manual intervention or human error.
NEW QUESTION # 206
A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame. Which of the following documents should the company provide to the client?
- A. BPA
- B. SOW
- C. SLA
- D. MSA
Answer: B
Explanation:
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training. The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership.
NEW QUESTION # 207
Which of the following penetration testing teams is focused only on trying to compromise an organization using an attacker's tactics?
- A. Purple
- B. Blue
- C. White
- D. Red
Answer: D
Explanation:
Red teams are focused only on trying to compromise an organization using an attacker's tactics. They simulate real-world attacks to test the effectiveness of the organization's security defenses and identify vulnerabilities.
Red team: Acts as adversaries to simulate attacks and find security weaknesses.
White team: Oversees and ensures the rules of engagement are followed during the penetration test.
Purple team: Facilitates collaboration between the red team and the blue team to improve security.
Blue team: Defends against attacks and responds to security incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 208
......
Pass CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam With 402 Questions: https://exams4sure.actualcollection.com/SY0-701-exam-questions.html