Jul-2026 CompTIA SY0-701 Actual Questions and 100% Cover Real Exam Questions
SY0-701 Free Exam Questions and Answers PDF Updated on Jul-2026
NEW QUESTION # 571
Which of the following should be used to ensure a device is inaccessible to a network-connected resource?
- A. Network-based IDS
- B. Host isolation
- C. Disablement of unused services
- D. Web application firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Host isolation ensures that a device is separated from the network, preventing it from accessing or being accessed by other network resources. This is typically achieved by quarantining the device.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Isolation and Containment".
NEW QUESTION # 572
Lab Simulation 1
A systems administrator is configuring a site-to-site VPN between two branch offices. Some of the settings have already been configured correctly. The systems administrator has been provided the following requirements as part of completing the configuration:
- Most secure algorithms should be selected
- All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN
- A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN
concentrators
Answer:
Explanation:
To configure the site-to-site VPN between the two branch offices according to the provided requirements, here are the detailed steps and settings that need to be applied to the VPN concentrators:
Requirements:
Most secure algorithms should be selected.
All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN.
A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators.
VPN Concentrator 1 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.10 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 2)
Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
VPN Concentrator 2 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.5 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 1)
Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Summary:
Peer IP Address: Set to the IP address of the remote VPN concentrator.
Auth Method: PSK for using a pre-shared key.
Negotiation Mode: MAIN for the initial setup.
Encryption Algorithm: AES256, which is a strong and secure algorithm.
Hash Algorithm: SHA256, which provides strong hashing.
DH Key Group: 14 for strong Diffie-Hellman key exchange.
Phase 2 Protocol: ESP for encryption and integrity.
Local and Remote Networks: Properly configure the local and remote network addresses to match each branch office subnet.
By configuring these settings on both VPN concentrators, the site-to-site VPN will meet the requirements for strong security algorithms, encryption of all traffic, and authentication using a pre-shared key.
NEW QUESTION # 573
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
- A. Steganography
- B. Key stretching
- C. Data masking
- D. Salting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks.
NEW QUESTION # 574
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
- A. EAP
- B. DHCP
- C. IPSec
- D. NAT
Answer: C
Explanation:
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client's network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1
NEW QUESTION # 575
A business is expanding to a new country and must protect customers from accidental disclosure of specific national identity information. Which of the following should the security engineer update to best meet business requirements?
- A. DLP
- B. SIEM
- C. SCAP
- D. WAF
Answer: A
Explanation:
The requirement is to prevent the accidental disclosure of national identity information-highly sensitive personal data. The best solution is DLP (Data Loss Prevention). DLP tools monitor, detect, and block unauthorized transmission or exposure of sensitive data across:
* Email
* Cloud storage
* Endpoints
* Networks
* Databases
In Security+ SY0-701, DLP is specifically recommended for ensuring compliance with privacy regulations, including those related to national identifiers (e.g., Social Security numbers, national ID numbers).
A SIEM (A) aggregates logs but does not prevent data leakage. SCAP (B) provides standardized security configuration assessments, unrelated to data protection. A WAF (D) helps protect web applications but does not prevent sensitive data exfiltration.
Since the requirement focuses on preventing accidental disclosure, DLP is the only technology capable of detecting, labeling, blocking, and reporting attempts to move or expose sensitive national identity data.
Therefore, the correct answer is C.
NEW QUESTION # 576
An administrator must replace an expired SSL certificate. Which of the following does the administrator need to create the new SSL certificate?
- A. Key
- B. OCSP
- C. CRL
- D. CSR
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request sent to a certificate authority (CA) to issue an SSL certificate. The CSR contains information like the public key, which will be part of the certificate.
NEW QUESTION # 577
A website user is locked out of an account after clicking an email link and visiting a different website Web server logs show the user's password was changed, even though the user did not change the password. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Directory traversal
- B. Cross-sue request forgery
- C. ARP poisoning
- D. SQL injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario describes a situation where a user unknowingly triggers an unwanted action, such as changing their password, by clicking a malicious link. This is indicative of a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack, where an attacker tricks the user into executing actions they did not intend to perform on a web application in which they are authenticated.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common attack vectors like CSRF.
NEW QUESTION # 578
A company is considering an expansion of access controls for an application that contractors and internal employees use to reduce costs. Which of the following risk elements should the implementation team understand before granting access to the application?
- A. Register
- B. Appetite
- C. Avoidance
- D. Threshold
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk appetiterefers to thelevel of risk an organization is willing to acceptbefore implementing security measures. When expanding access controls, the company must assess how much risk is acceptable in terms ofdata exposure, unauthorized access, and compliance obligations.
Reference:CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Risk Management domain.
NEW QUESTION # 579
A company uses its backups to recover from a ransomware attack. Which of the following best guarantees that the backups are not infected?
- A. Immutability
- B. Sanitization
- C. Retention
- D. Destruction
Answer: A
Explanation:
Immutability ensures backups cannot be altered or encrypted after creation, preventing ransomware from infecting them and preserving clean recovery points.
NEW QUESTION # 580
Which of the following is used to calculate the impact to an organization per cybersecurity incident?
- A. SLE
- B. ALE
- C. SLA
- D. ARO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents the monetary loss an organization expects from a single cybersecurity incident, helping quantify the financial impact of individual events.
NEW QUESTION # 581
Which of the following is a customer responsible for in a hybrid cloud environment?
- A. SaaS scaling
- B. Utility uptime
- C. IaC versioning
- D. PaaS IAM
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a hybrid cloud model, customers retain responsibility for managing their infrastructure configurations and deployments, including versioning infrastructure-as-code used to provision and maintain resources.
NEW QUESTION # 582
While updating the security awareness training, a security analyst wants to address issues created if vendors' email accounts are compromised. Which of the following recommendations should the security analyst include in the training?
- A. Delete emails from unknown service provider partners.
- B. Require that invoices be sent as attachments
- C. Be alert to unexpected requests from familiar email addresses
- D. Refrain from clicking on images included in emails from new vendors
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 583
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
- A. MOU
- B. SOW
- C. MOA
- D. SLA
Answer: D
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
References:
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under "About the exam", bullet point 3:
"Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance." CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: "Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider."
NEW QUESTION # 584
During an investigation, an incident response team attempts to understand the source of an incident. Which of the following incident response activities describes this process?
- A. Detection
- B. Containment
- C. Analysis
- D. Lessons learned
Answer: C
Explanation:
Analysis is the incident response activity that describes the process of understanding the source of an incident. Analysis involves collecting and examining evidence, identifying the root cause, determining the scope and impact, and assessing the threat actor's motives and capabilities. Analysis helps the incident response team to formulate an appropriate response strategy, as well as to prevent or mitigate future incidents.
Analysis is usually performed after detection and before containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-
701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 223. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.2, page 13.
NEW QUESTION # 585
A company has begun labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. Which of the following security benefits do these actions provide? (Choose two.)
- A. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens.
- B. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops.
- C. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device.
- D. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops.
- E. If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified.
- F. Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization.
Answer: E,F
NEW QUESTION # 586
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