Free Apr-2024 220-1101 Certification Sample Questions certification Exam
Certification Topics of 220-1101 Exam PDF Recently Updated Questions
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 (220-1101) is a computer-based exam that consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions. 220-1101 exam is timed and lasts for 90 minutes. The passing score for the exam is 675 out of 900. 220-1101 exam is available in English, German, Japanese, Portuguese, and Spanish.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A technician is creating a new RAID array for a customer After interviewing the customer, the technician decides to implement a RAID array of striping without parity. Which of the following reasons would lead the technician to choose striping without parity instead of striping with parity?
- A. Available storage space needs to be maximized
- B. Redundancy and speed are equally important
- C. Speed is the most important consideration.
- D. Uptime is the customer's biggest concern
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Speed is the most important consideration. Striping without parity, also known as RAID 0, is a RAID configuration that splits data across multiple disks without any redundancy. This improves the performance of read and write operations, as multiple disks can work in parallel. However, this also increases the risk of data loss, as any disk failure will result in losing all data on the array. Therefore, striping without parity is suitable for situations where speed is prioritized over reliability. According to the CompTIA Core1 objectives, one of the advantages of RAID 0 is increased speed. A research paper on RAID performance also confirms that RAID 0 has the highest throughput among all RAID levels.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A customer reports a network connectivity issue. A technician discovers that LAN ports have been damaged during remodeling. Which of the following tools should the technician use to fix the issue?
- A. Network tap
- B. Punchdown tool
- C. Cable stripper
- D. Crimper
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Punchdown tool.
A punchdown tool is a device that can connect wires to a patch panel or a network jack by inserting them into the appropriate slots and cutting off the excess. A punchdown tool can be used to fix the damaged LAN ports by replacing the wires or reconnecting them to the correct terminals.
A cable stripper is a device that can remove the insulation from a cable to expose the wires inside. A cable stripper is not useful for fixing the damaged LAN ports, unless the technician needs to strip new wires before punching them down.
A crimper is a device that can attach connectors to the ends of cables, such as RJ-45 or RJ-11. A crimper is not useful for fixing the damaged LAN ports, unless the technician needs to replace the connectors on the cables.
A network tap is a device that can monitor and capture network traffic by creating a copy of the data passing through a network link. A network tap is not useful for fixing the damaged LAN ports, as it does not affect the connectivity of the network devices.
NEW QUESTION # 33
A user submitted a help desk ticket to report that the Wi-Fi connection drops every time the microwave is used. A technician suspects the issue is related to interference. Which of the following should the technician do to provide the BEST long-term solution for the issue?
- A. Change the Wi-Fi operation channel.
- B. Change the SSID to hidden.
- C. Increase the power output of the AP.
- D. Configure the Wi-Fi AP to 5GHz.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The issue is related to interference from the microwave, which operates at 2.4GHz, the same frequency as some Wi-Fi channels. To avoid this interference, the technician should configure the Wi-Fi access point (AP) to use a 5GHz band, which has more channels and less interference from other devices. Changing the Wi-Fi operation channel may not solve the problem if the microwave interferes with multiple channels. Increasing the power output of the AP may not overcome the interference and may cause more interference to other devices. Changing the SSID to hidden does not affect the interference at all, and may make it harder for users to connect to the network. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-wifi-6-and-why-is-it-important
NEW QUESTION # 34
A technician is setting up a home network with the following requirements:
* Automatic distribution of IP addresses
. Internet access
Which of the following should the technician configure? (Select two).
- A. DHCP
- B. Static IP addresses
- C. Public IP addresses
- D. APIPA
- E. Gateway
- F. VPN
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a device to automatically obtain an IP address and other network settings from a DHCP server, such as a home router. This simplifies the network configuration and avoids IP address conflicts. DHCP is a common requirement for home networks that have multiple devices that need Internet access.
A gateway is a device that connects two different networks, such as a home network and the Internet. A gateway usually performs routing functions, which means it determines the best path for packets to reach their destination. A gateway also often performs NAT (Network Address Translation), which allows multiple devices on a home network to share a single public IP address. A gateway is a necessary requirement for home networks that need Internet access.
Reference
Understanding DHCP on Home Networks
Basic home gateway services: DHCP, DNS, NAT
IP Addresses on Home Networks - A Beginner's Guide
NEW QUESTION # 35
A technician is setting up storage in a server that only has SAS connectors for storage. The technician wants the server to utilize RAID 10 for increased performance. Which of the following storage types should the technician install?
- A. mSATA
- B. Mechanical
- C. NVMe M.2
- D. Optical
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SAS stands for Serial Attached SCSI, which is a type of interface that connects storage devices to servers or workstations. SAS supports both mechanical hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid state drives (SSDs), but not other types of storage devices, such as NVMe M.2, mSATA, or optical drives12.
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, which is a method of combining multiple storage devices into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping), which means that data is written across two or more striped sets of mirrored drives34.
Therefore, the only type of storage device that the technician can install in a server that only has SAS connectors and wants to use RAID 10 is mechanical HDDs. Mechanical HDDs use spinning platters and moving heads to store and access data, and they are usually cheaper and have larger capacities than SSDs, but they are also slower and more prone to failure .
References:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.3: Storage Devices, Page 131 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.2:
Storage Interfaces, Page 97
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.4: RAID, Page 143 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.4:
RAID, Page 104
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.3: Storage Devices, Page 129 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.3:
Hard Disk Drives, Page 99
NEW QUESTION # 36
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is not completing POST and gets stuck at the manufacturer logo screen. All internal, removable parts have been disconnected and only the minimum parts necessary to POST were reconnected. However, the symptoms remain the same. Which of the following should the technician try NEXT?
- A. Remove and test the power supply.
- B. Test the RAM in different slots, one at a time.
- C. Change the CMOS battery.
- D. Replace the motherboard.
Answer: B
Explanation:
CMOS is for date and time and should not stop a host from booting. If working on a host with ECC memory you would test the ram in a different slot or a different Stick all together. If that did not work, I would swap in the other CPU to check if that is the issue. The ECC part isn't important other than thats what I'm used to working on at AWS and that is the only way you would be able to swap the CPUs easily.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A technician is on site troubleshooting a customer's laptop. The technician needs to download a software update but the company's proxy is blocking updates. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate action for the technician to take to get the update?
- A. Connect to a hotspot
- B. Change the DNS address to 1.1.1.1
- C. Request a traffic exemption.
- D. Update the Group Policy settings
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a technician is on site troubleshooting a customer's laptop and needs to download a software update but the company's proxy is blocking updates, the most appropriate action for the technician to take would be to request a traffic exemption from the company's IT department.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A user reboots a machine. On rebooting, the user hears one beep, and then an error message is displayed. Which of the following are MOST likely causing this issue? (Select TWO).
- A. RAM module
- B. CPU
- C. Power supply
- D. Boot order
- E. Graphics card
- F. USB flash drive
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
When a user hears one beep on rebooting a machine, and then an error message is displayed, it could indicate that there is a problem with the RAM module or the boot order. The beep sound indicates that the POST process was successful, and the error message indicates that the boot process was unsuccessful. The boot order determines the sequence in which the computer looks for bootable devices. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 693)
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following BEST describes the main function of a web server?
- A. Setting up personal mailboxes and calendars
- B. Hosting home pages and business portals
- C. Storing files and controlling user access
- D. Providing IP addresses and printing services
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A web server is a software application that serves HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) requests by delivering web pages and other files to users' web browsers. The main function of a web server is to host home pages and business portals, making them accessible to users via the internet. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 - Networking - 1.6
NEW QUESTION # 40
The Wi-Fi network in the office is experiencing slow connection speeds. Which of the following should the technician check first on the access point?
- A. Transmit power settings
- B. Security settings
- C. Location
- D. Firmware version
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The transmit power settings of the access point determine how strong the Wi-Fi signal is. If the transmit power is too low, the Wi-Fi network will have slow connection speeds and poor coverage. If the transmit power is too high, the Wi-Fi network will interfere with other nearby networks and devices, causing congestion and performance issues. Therefore, the technician should check the transmit power settings first and adjust them to an optimal level for the office environment.
References:
*8 Reasons Why Your Internet is Slow (and How to Fix It), section "You have weak Wi-Fi signals".
*6 Things Slowing Down Your Wi-Fi (And What to Do About Them) - How-To Geek, section "Channel Congestion Dings Wi-Fi Performance".
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following are benefits of application virtualization? (Select two).
- A. Applications are easier to learn.
- B. The overall IT cost goes down.
- C. OS performance is superior.
- D. The network works more quickly.
- E. Upgrading applications is easier.
- F. RAM works more efficiently.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answers are D. The overall IT cost goes down and F. Upgrading applications is easier.
Application virtualization is a technology that allows users to run applications without installing them on their devices. The applications are stored and executed on a remote server, and the users can access them through a network connection. Application virtualization has several benefits, such as12:
*The overall IT cost goes down: Application virtualization reduces the need for hardware, software, and maintenance costs, as the applications are centralized and managed on the server side. This also saves energy and space, as fewer physical machines are required to run the applications. Additionally, application virtualization can reduce licensing costs, as the applications can be delivered on-demand and based on usage.
*Upgrading applications is easier: Application virtualization simplifies the process of updating and patching applications, as the changes can be made on the server side and pushed to the users instantly. This eliminates the need for manual installation and configuration on each device, and ensures that all users have the latest version of the applications.
Other benefits of application virtualization include123:
*Allows the running of legacy apps: Application virtualization can enable users to run applications that are developed for older or incompatible operating systems, such as Windows 7 or XP. This can extend the lifespan of legacy applications and avoid compatibility issues.
*Enables cross-platform operations: Application virtualization can allow users to run applications that are designed for different platforms, such as Windows apps on iOS, Android, macOS, or Chrome OS. This can increase the accessibility and mobility of the applications and enhance the user experience.
*Improves security and compliance: Application virtualization can isolate the applications from the underlying operating system and hardware, preventing malware or unauthorized access from affecting them. This can also protect the data and settings of the applications from being tampered with or lost. Furthermore, application virtualization can help enforce compliance policies and regulations, as the applications can be controlled and monitored by the server.
References:
1: 5 Benefits of Virtualization - IBM Blog
2: Benefits of Application Virtualization - AppsAnywhere
3: What is Application Virtualization? | VMware Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 42
A user is having an issue with the touch screen on a mobile device. When the user touches the screen, the intended target is not selected. Which of the following would be the BEST action for a technician to take to resolve the issue?
- A. Calibrate the touch screen.
- B. Reset the mobile device.
- C. Replace the LED screen.
- D. Update the mobile device.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Calibrating the touch screen is the best action to resolve the issue of inaccurate touch input. Calibration adjusts the touch screen's sensitivity and alignment to match the user's touch. Resetting the mobile device could erase user data and settings and may not fix the touch screen issue. Replacing the LED screen or updating the mobile device are unnecessary and costly actions that may not solve the problem.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A desktop support technician is building a new desktop that features the fastest internal storage. Which of the following BEST suits this request1?
- A. PCIe SATA HDD
- B. SATASSD
- C. M2PCIeNVMeSSD
- D. SATA HDD
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
M2PCIeNVMeSSD. M.2 PCIe NVMe SSDs are the fastest internal storage devices available for desktops. They are faster than SATA SSDs and PCIe SATA HDDs
NEW QUESTION # 44
A user who works with sensitive data has a computer configured with hard drive encryption The TPM is active and hosting the encrypted key. After an upgrade to the motherboard. RAM and video card the hard drive is not booting and data cannot be accessed from the hard drive. Which of the following should the technician do to enable the system to boot again and get access to the stored data?
- A. Use data recovery software to find and recover the hard drive information
- B. Return the replaced motherboard back to the computer
- C. Boot into the BIOS and enable the TPM on the new motherboard.
- D. Access the BIOS and select to rebuild the degraded RAID array
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following controls the flow of users connecting to web server farms and prevents overutilization on any individual server?
- A. Spam gateway
- B. Honeypot
- C. Load balancer
- D. Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or resources, such as web server farms, to optimize performance, reliability, and scalability. A load balancer controls the flow of users connecting to web server farms and prevents overutilization on any individual server by using various algorithms, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution. A load balancer can also provide health checks, failover, caching, compression, encryption, and other features to enhance the user experience and security.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A client wants to connect an external keyboard to an Android tablet. Which of the following connection types are appropriate for this task? (Select TWO).
- A. USB-C
- B. PS/2
- C. DVI
- D. Infrared
- E. Bluetooth
- F. Lightning
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Explanation
The appropriate connection types for connecting an external keyboard to an Android tablet are USB-C and Bluetooth123.
NEW QUESTION # 47
After moving a user's legacy workstation into a new private office that does not have a LAN connection, the technician is unable to connect to a wireless network. Which of the following is the most likely reason?
- A. Hidden Wi-Fi SSID
- B. Incorrect Wi-Fi channel
- C. Wi-Fi AP replacement
- D. Missing Wi-Fi adapter
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely reason is A. Missing Wi-Fi adapter.
A Wi-Fi adapter is a device that allows a computer to connect to a wireless network. A legacy workstation may not have a built-in Wi-Fi adapter, or it may have an outdated or incompatible one. If the workstation does not have a Wi-Fi adapter, it will not be able to detect or access any wireless networks, regardless of the location, signal strength, or configuration of the network.
To fix this issue, the technician can install a Wi-Fi adapter on the workstation, either internally or externally. An internal Wi-Fi adapter is a card that fits into a slot on the motherboard, while an external Wi-Fi adapter is a device that plugs into a USB port. The technician should choose a Wi-Fi adapter that is compatible with the workstation's operating system, hardware, and wireless standards .
The other options are less likely to be the reason for the issue. A Wi-Fi AP replacement means changing the wireless access point that provides the network connection. This may affect the network name, password, or settings, but it should not prevent the workstation from detecting any wireless networks. A hidden Wi-Fi SSID means that the network name is not broadcasted publicly, but it can still be accessed by entering the name manually. A hidden Wi-Fi SSID may make it harder to find the network, but it should not prevent the workstation from detecting other wireless networks. An incorrect Wi-Fi channel means that the network is using a frequency band that is crowded or interfered by other devices. This may affect the network performance or stability, but it should not prevent the workstation from detecting any wireless networks.
Reference:
1: How to Add Wi-Fi to a Desktop Computer - How-To Geek
2: How to Choose a Wireless Adapter for Your Computer - Lifewire
3: Troubleshooting Wireless Network Connections - Intel
NEW QUESTION # 48
......
2024 New Preparation Guide of CompTIA 220-1101 Exam: https://exams4sure.actualcollection.com/220-1101-exam-questions.html